That is wrong! There are flaws and available avenues for the banks to reinvest as the PI part of that. But his math and accounting are BS. The dude set there and showed in the top right depiction the PI (private investor) investing in a potential loss of 0 and the potential return of $25. First, the FED has secured the FIRST 50 of the 60 debt buyout. The 5 form the PI is a split investment on the amount the asset sells for above $50. And this can happen anytime, they don't have to sell because some fund comes calling...especially with 7....that is a PI portion. Ur umm uh...that 7 would be good if it is 50% of the 14 that allows the FED to only hold 36. Then he starts showing that 7 + 100 block....BS! The bank did not get that...they invested 7 to split the sale price, on the toxic asset, above the 36 in this case. Meaning the FED got its money back and the Treasury gets the same return as the PI. In his "concept" the PI (in his case the Bank again) and the Treasury split the amount above 36. So his whole bottom thing was bogus.
Furthermore I don't think the top is correct either. The bail-out is from the GOV, the GOV arm into the monetary circle is through the Treasury. The Federal Reserve is private and it is the central bank. How in the Hell is the Fed sitting on 5/6ths of the appropriated debt? Tax payers are sitting on this as the vehicle that funds the Treasury! This has to be a BS scam! I could go much deeper but this is trash!